医学英语试题
下面是本站小编整理的医学英语试题，以供大家学习参考。
Medical English Test ( A )
Part I Listening Comprehension ( 10 points )
Section A
Directions In this section, you will hear 10 short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a third voice will ask a question about what was said. You will hear the question once. After you hear the question, read the following possible answers and choose the best answer.
Example You will hear:
Man: Come on, Susan! Hurry up! Drink your coffee! The train is leaving in a minute. We’ll be late!
Woman: I can’t finish it. It’s much too hot for me to drink.
Third voice: Where are they?
You will read: A. At a bus station.
B. At an airport.
C. At a railway station.
D. At a cafeteria in the railway station.
From the conversation we know that the two speakers are drinking coffee and are going to take a train. This is most likely to have taken place at a cafeteria. Therefore, [D] “At a cafeteria in the railway station" is the best answer.
1. A) The doctor took care of him for a week.
B) There is something wrong with his back.
C) The doctor advised him to rest.
D) The class was easy enough for him.
2. A) He is a dancer.
B) He is a patient.
C) He is a physician.
D) He is a physiotherapist.
3. A) Flu
B) Gastritis
C) Heart attack
D) Appendicitis
4. A) In an injection room
B) In a labor room
C) In an emergency room
D) In a dressing room
5. A) Say that he consents to the operation.
B) Sign his name on an operating permit.
C) Do nothing but keep silent.
D) Ask many questions about his condition.
6. A) He couldn’t help the woman.
B) He is in trouble nowadays.
C) He is addicted to smoking.
D) He is tired of smoking.
7. A) A blood condition
B) A sore throat
C) Short of breath
D) Lack of sleep
8. A) Don’t worry. You’ll be OK in a day or two.
B) Nothing serious. You need rest.
C) Go for the admission procedures immediately.
D) Let me take your temperature.
9. A) Possible complications
B) The patient’s mental condition
C) Bronchial pneumonia
D) What they should do if something new develops
10. A) To give her a phone call.
B) To talk about appendicitis.
C) To write her a report.
D) To tell her the patient’s condition.
Section B
Directions In this section, you will hear two short passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear some questions. Both the passages and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear one question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A),B),C), and D).
(A)
11. A) It originated in monkeys in central Africa.
B) It originated in monkeys in north Africa.
C) It originated in monkeys in America.
D) It originated in monkeys in Europe.
12. A) Sexual contact.
B) Contaminated blood transfusion.
C) Casual contact.
D) Intravenous drug use.
13. A) Because the infected people are susceptible to many deadly infection.
B) Because the disease is spread through different routes.
C) Because one individual may spread it to two or three other individuals.
D) Because even infants born to infected women are known to contract the disease.
14. A) Because it will spend countless millions of dollars.
B) Because the drugs they found may damage the healthy tissues.
C) Because the drugs they found are not specifically toxic to the virus.
D) Because the scientists are not aware of the importance of it.
15. A) The discovery of this disease.
B) How serious the disease is.
C) The routes of spreading.
D) How to fight against this disease.
(B)
16. A) Stress in life
B) Depression
C) Some physical diseases
D) Skipped meals
17. A) Some prescription drugs can produce normal sleep.
B) Some over-the-counter drugs can produce normal drugs.
C) Some drugs can only make you sedated.
D) No drugs can make you sedated.
18. A) Get much exercise as possible, preferably early in the day.
B) Read a book that interests you much.
C) Lie in the bed rehearsing the mistakes of the day.
D) Go to bed earlier the next night.
19. A) Skimmed milk.
B) Dried prunes.
C) Alcohol.
D) Watermelons.
20. A) You can eat certain foods and you can do certain things that are
sleep-inducing.
B) Have a nap when you are sleepy during the day
C) Tryptophan can be converted into serotonin which is important to the sleep process.
D) Doing things in sequence can help you achieve a good sleep pattern.
Part II Vocabulary ( 20 points )
Directions: There are 20 incomplete sentences in this section. For each sentence there are four choices marked A), B), C), and D). Choose the ONE answer that best completes the sentence.
21. How can the physician determine if the patient is hypertensive because of some observable renal arterial narrowing as seen on selective renal _______ ?
A) angioplasty B) angiography C) angiotension D) adrenergic
22. Because of the _______ the total muscle mass of the ventricle increased, and the most obvious hypertrophy is seen in the trabeculae of the inner layers of the ventricular wall.
A) ablation B) embolization C) dilatation D) bifurcation
23. Complications of renal biopsy, mainly_______, occurred in five out of 91 patients.
A) hematomas B) hemodialysis
C)hemolysis D) hemophilia
24. In the cases in which there is no obvious extrahepatic involvement, solitary hepatic lesions may be excised or partial_______ carried out.
A) atherectomy B) atrioseptostomy
C) hepatectomy D) embolectomy
25. _______ may involve trouble falling asleep, frequent or prolonged nocturnal awakenings or early morning awakenings with an inability to return to sleep.
A) Depression B) Apnea C) Insomnia D) Anemia
26. Kaposi’s _____ and high-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma are prototypical AIDS-defining malignant diseases.
A) astrocytoma B) leiomyoma C) sarcoma D) melanoma
27. The majority of patients have a single _________ of bleeding which ceases within 24 hours.
A) epinephrine B) epigastrium C) epidermis D) episode
28. In a patient with __________ ulcer, the pain usually occurs from two to three hours after meals.
A) anomalous B) retrievable C) virulent D) duodenal
29. Lung cancer includes a number of malignancies of which the various types of bronchogenic____________ are by far the most common.
A) sarcoma B) leiomyoma C) carcinoma D) fibroma
30. __________ is a congenital condition characterized by the incomplete expansion of the lungs at birth.
A) Contusion B) Edema C) Atelectasis D) Toxaemia
31. Some diseases and drugs may reduce the desire for food，that is _______.
A) anorexia B) anemia C) atelectasis D) aneurysm
32. An inadequate flow of blood to a part of the body is called _______, which is caused by constriction or blockage of the blood vessels supplying it.
A) angina B) angiotension C) ischemia D) infarction
33. Excessive production of ________, a substance released into the blood by the kidney, results in the syndrome of renal hypertension.
A) renin B) polypeptide C) histamine D) angiotension
34. _________ is a toxic condition resulting from kidney disease in which there is retention in the bloodstream of waste products normally excreted in the urine.
A) Bacteremia B) Toxemia C) Uremia D) Septicemia
35. A cough may be dry, or it may produce a lot of _______.
A) sputum B) saliva C) serum D) semen
36. The ________ test will measure the amount of air in your lungs and the amount you can breathe out in one second. This will help to determine how your lungs are functioning.
A) spirometry B) endoscopy C) hemodialysis D) manometry
37. A _________ refers to a collection of gas in the pleural space resulting in collapse of the lung on the affected side.
A) pneumomediastinum B) pneumoperitoneum
C) pneumonia D) pneumothorax
38. The secretion of _______, a hormone secreted by glands in the mucous membrane of the stomach, is stimulated by the presence of food.
A) pepsinogen B) gastrin C) lipase D) thyrotropin
39. Anterior tibialis _________ readings were recorded during the first night to detect periodic limb movements.
A) electrocardiographic B) electroencephalographic
C) electromyographic D) electro-oculographic
40. If all genes in the human ____ are sequenced, gene therapy will be greatly enhanced.
A) germs B) germinoma C) genome D) germogen
Part III Reading Comprehension (50 points)
Directions: Each of the passages below is followed by some questions. For each question there are four answers marked A), B), C), and D). Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each of the questions. .
Passage 1
Asthma is manifested by widespread narrowing of the airways that changes in severity, either spontaneously, or as a result of treatment. The reversible airway obstruction is caused by smooth muscle contraction and mucosal edema. Secretion clearance is diminished and production may be increased. Bronchial hyperreactivity is not unique to asthma, however. A small number of healthy subjects, and as many as 50% of patients with allergic rhinitis, manifest abnormal airway reactivity to bronchial challenge. The etiology of bronchial hyper-reactivity is unknown. Possible mechanisms include an increased responsiveness of the smooth muscle itself, an abnormality in the autonomic nervous system control of the smooth muscle or an increase in the accessibility of the stimulus to the target cells. An increase in airway wall thickness and smooth muscle mass probably contributes to the reactive state. Irritant receptors located in the airways, nose, larynx, and lungs respond to mechanical and chemical irritants, inhalation of dust, and drugs such as histamine. When stimulated, these receptors cause reflex bronchoconstriction through vagal efferent pathways.
Several interrelated physiologic abnormalities occur in patients with significant bronchoconstriction. Airway resistance increases five to six times above normal and specific conductance is therefore decreased. Expiratory time is prolonged and the forced vital capacity is low, averaging approximately 50% of predicted normal. The forced expired volume in one second (FEV1) is diminished, averaging 30% ～ 35% of predicted normal while maximum midexpiratory flow rate (MMEFR) and the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) usually are only 15% ～ 20% of normal. Hyperinflation is manifested by an increase in the residual volume and functional residual capacity (FRC) but diminished vital capacity and elastic recoil. Total lung capacity may be normal or only slightly increased. Pathophysiologic changes include ventilation-perfusion mismatching which results in hypoxemia. Increased airway resistance leads to progressive alveolar hypoventilation and hypercapnia, while the increased work of breathing results in lactic acidemia. The combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis may be life threatening.
41. ________ can cause asthma, a widespread narrowing of the airways that changes in severity.
A) Aging B) Treatment C) Sputum D) Immunoglobulin
42. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the above passage?
A) In asthma, secretion clearance is decreased.
B) In asthma, airway obstruction is reversible.
C) Bronchial hyperreactivity is unique to asthma.
D) The etiology of bronchial hyperreactivity is unknown.
43. Possible mechanism of bronchial hyperreactivity includes ______.
A) an increased responsiveness of the smooth muscle itself.
B) inhalation of mechanical and chemical irritants.
C) autonomic nervous system control of the smooth muscle.
D) irritant receptors located in the airways.
44. In asthma, the forced vital capacity averages approximately ______ of predicted normal.
A) 15% B) 20% C) 50% D) 75%
45. Which of the following statements concerning asthma is TRUE according to the above passage?
A) Pathophysiologic changes include ventilation-perfusion mismatching which results in hyperxemia.
B) Total lung capacity may be normal or only slightly decreased.
C) The increased work of breathing results in hypercapnia.
D) The combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis may be fatal.
Passage 2
Most patients who have a haematemesis are in no doubt that the blood was vomited. However, blood discovered in the mouth may have originated from the postnasal space or lower respiratory tract. This can cause confusion unless time is taken to elicit an accurate history. The haematemesis may consist either of fresh blood mixed with gastric fluid or changed blood in the form of “coffee grounds”. All such patients should be referred to hospital for admission because haematemesis indicates a recent haemorrhage.
The patient’s estimate of how much blood has been vomited is seldom helpful in assessing the true severity of the bleed. In contrast, vomitus saved by the patient or produced in the presence of the practitioner is a useful guide. Haematemesis may be accompanied by melaena but because most patients who vomit blood rapidly seek medical attention, it is not always initially present. If no stool has been passed, rectal examination may reveal melaena. This can sometimes be helpful when there is doubt about the validity of haematemesis. Malaena without haematemesis often indicates a less severe bleed. However, when melaena is fresh or has been present for 3 days or less, admission to hospital is still required. A patient with a longer history of melaena who is not anaemic and remains otherwise healthy does not necessarily require admission, providing early investigation can be arranged. Confusion can sometimes arise in patients taking iron or bismuth containing preparations because they both cause darkening of the stool. Neither gives a positive occult blood test.
46. According to the above passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) All blood discovered in the mouth was vomited.
B) Most blood discovered in the mouth was vomited.
C) All blood discovered in the mouth originated from the postnasal space or lower respiratory tract.
D) Most blood discovered in the mouth originated from the postnasal space or lower respiratory tract.
47. According to the above passage, what may the haematemesis consist of?
A) Fresh blood mixed with “coffee grounds”.
B) Fresh blood in the form of “coffee grounds”.
C) Changed blood mixed with “coffee grounds”.
D) Changed blood in the form of “coffee grounds”.
48. _______ is usually helpful in assessing the true severity of the haemorrhage.
A) The patient’s estimate of how much blood has been vomited.
B) The patient’s estimate of how much food has been vomited.
C) The vomitus.
D) The melaena.
49. According to the above passage, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A) Haematemesis without malaena often indicates a less severe bleed.
B) Haematemesis with malaena often indicates a less severe bleed.
C) Malaena without haematemesis often indicates a less severe bleed.
D) Malaena with anaemia often indicates a less severe bleed.
r which of the following conditions the patient should be referred to hospital for admission?
A) When melaena is in the form of “coffee grounds”.
B) When melaena is fresh.
C) When anaemia is present.
D) When the stool is dark.
Passage 3
HIV-1 has been cultured from lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages obtained from blood, semen, and vaginal and cervical secretions of infected individuals. The virus also exists in a cell-free form in these fluids. It is not clear whether cell-to-cell contact or the exposure of uninfected cells to free virus is the more common or efficient way that new infections occur. The virus has also been obtained, less consistently, from the cerebrospinal fluid, and rarely in very low concentration from the saliva of patients infected by HIV-1. No clearly documented cases of HIV transmission via body fluids other than blood or genital secretions are known.
A second human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-2) was identified in Western Africa in the mid-1980’s. While HIV-2 has been associated with AIDS-like syndromes, the vast majority of HIV-2 seropositive persons are asymptomatic. Whether these seropositive individuals are infected with a less virulent strain, or simply represent more recent exposure to an equally virulent virus, is not yet known. Although HIV-2 shares many biologic and genetic characteristics with HIV-1, each of the two viruses also has genes that are unique. HIV-2 is more closely related to the simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV). Sporadic HIV-2 infections in the United States have occurred in persons of West African origin.
HTLV-I (human T-cell lymphotrophic virus-I), the first pathogenic human retrovirus, was identified several years prior to the recognition of HIV-1 as the cause of AIDS. HTLV-I is endemic in southern Japan and the Caribbean and in certain parts of Africa. It is also present among drug abusers in Europe and the United states and thus has the potential for further spread. Its modes of transmission are similar to those of HIV-1 and 2, but the perinatal routes (breast milk as well as transplacental) appear to account for a far greater proportion of the known cases of HTLV-I. Two distinct clinical illnesses, an aggressive adult T-cell leukemia and a relatively indolent spastic paraparesis (originally designated tropical spastic paraparesis), may be associated with HTLV-I infection. However, as compared to HIV-1, individuals infected with HTLV-I are much less likely to develop clinical illness. Fewer than 1 per cent of HTLV-I infected persons develop either T-cell malignancies or spastic paraparesis; both of the clinical syndromes most frequently develop through decades of life, 30 to 50 years after the presumed acquisition of the HTLV-I infection. The extent of subclinical neurological and/or immunological impairment in populations infected with both HTLV-I and HIV-1 appear to become immunocompromised more rapidly than those infected with HIV-1 alone.
51. HIV-1 also exists in a cell-free form in the following fluids except _______.
A) blood B) sweat C) semen D) genital secretions
52. According to the above passage, which of the following statement is TRUE.
A) The vast majority of HIV-2 seropoistive persons are asymptomatic because they are infected with a less virulent strain.
B) The vast majority of HIV-2 seropoistive persons are asymptomatic because they are more recently exposed to an equally virulent virus.
C) The vast majority of HIV-2 seropoistive persons are asymptomatic because HIV-2 is more closely related to the simian immunodeficiency virus.
D) None of the above.
53. Which of the following activities may transmit HTLV-I infection through perinatal routes?
A) Breast milk feeding.
B) Homosexual intercourse.
C) Sharing needles.
D) Transfusions of contaminated blood.
54. HIV-2 has a closer relationship with _______ .
A) HIV-1
B) HTLV-I
C) SIV
D) None of the above
55. According to the above passage, which of the following statement is TRUE.
A) When persons are infected with HIV-2, their immunities are impaired in a faster speed than those infected with HIV-1.
B) When persons are infected with HIV-1, their immunities are impaired in a faster speed than those infected with HIV-2.
C) When persons are infected with both HTLV-I and HIV-2, their immunities are impaired in a faster speed than those infected with HIV-2 alone.
D) When persons are infected with both HTLV-I and HIV-1, their immunities are impaired in a faster speed than those infected with HIV-1 alone.
Passage 4
Smog damages the lungs of growing infants and causes asthma, suggests unpublished research carried out at theUniversity of California at Davis. The findings confirm a link that has been widely suspected, but never proven.
In the past ten years, studies have found circumstantial evidence, one of the more noxious constituents of smog. However, researchers have not proved that ozone causes asthma because they cannot measure how much ozone an individual has been exposed to.
To settle the issue, the Davis carried out a series of experiments with young rhesus monkeys. One group of monkeys had ozone added to their air supply. A second group breathed air containing the dust mite allergen, a component of household dust that is a common trigger of asthma attacks. A third group breathed air containing both the allergen and ozone, and a fourth group breathed clean air.
The amount of ozone in the contaminated air supply was varied to mimic conditions in the real world, says Charles Plopper, one of the team’s leaders. For five days the monkeys breathed air containing ozone, followed by nine ozone-free days—a cycle based loosely on Environmental Protection Agency records of ozone levels in Los Angeles, says Plopper. The concentration of ozone was 0.5 parts per million. “ That is high for California,” he says, “ but about average for Mexico City.”
After five months of exposure, monkeys that had been breathing ozone developed symptoms similar to those of a child with borderline asthma, says Plopper. Heir lung capacity was reduced and they wheezed when briefly exposed to the dust mite allergen. Monkeys that had continually breathed both ozone and the allergen had more severe reactions, similar to full-blown asthma attacks: rapid, shallow breathing and decreased blood oxygen levels.
Both groups of ozone-exposed monkeys had lung abnormalities typical of people with asthma. The smooth muscle that controls the flow of air through the lungs was hyperactive, constricting the airways. The lungs made more mucus than usual, clogging up the airways. And the monkeys has unusually low levels of glutathione(谷胱甘肽), a chemical that protects the lungs from free radicals. “ That puts them at risks for other types of lung injury.” Plopper says.
He and his colleagues had previously found that ozone does not cause the same degree of lung damage in adult monkeys. They believe, therefore, that ozone exposure is especially damaging early in life, when the lungs are still developing.
Because lung development is similar in monkeys and humans, the research may help explain why children who grow up in smoggy cities tend to have more respiratory problems, says Ira Tager of the University of California, Berkeley, School ofPublic Health. “ It fits well with what’s known in humans about developmental effects.” He says.
56. To prove the link between asthma and ozone exposure, according to the passage, is to _________.
A) verify the association between smog and ozone
B) measure the amount of ozone exposure
C) prove the existence of ozone in smog
D)confirm the toxicity of ozone
57. In the test, the subjects _________.
A)were divided into four groups to breathe varied concentrations of ozone
B)inhaled the contaminated air in California and Mexico City respectively
C)had their asthma attacks induced by breathing air containing ozone
D)inhaled the adjusted amount of ozone as if in the real world
58. Which of the following groups turned out to be the most serious victims?
A) The 1st group
B) The 2nd group
C) The 3rd group
D)The 4th group
59. Between the ozone –exposed monkeys’ lung abnormalities and those of people with asthma, the researchers ________.
A)discovered the same amount of ozone exposure
B)pinpointed the exactly same causative factor
C) found a cause-effect relation
D) can draw an analogy.
60. From the results, Plopper would say that ozone exposure _________.
A) can be responsible for the asthma epidemic in children
B) damages monkeys as well as humans
C) affects human lung development
D)all of the above
Passage 5
To beat leukemia, it helps to be lucky. A bone marrow transplant can give a patient a fresh start at producing blood cells free of this cancer, but a successful transplant typically requires that at least five out of six key genetic markers in the donor match those in the recipient.
Unfortunately, most patients don't find a good match even among close relatives willing to donate bone marrow and must hope to get appropriate bone marrow from a tissue bank. Some wait months for a good match, and others die waiting. Some acutely ill patients, having little choice, must accept the best available transplant--blood in which only three or four of the six markers are correct. Having a mismatched donor worsens the recipient's survival odds because the transplanted tissue is often rejected.
A study in the Oct. 22 New England Journal of Medicine brightens the picture for leukemia patients. By giving them a massive dose of stem cells--the marrow cells that harbor blueprints for new, healthy blood cells--researchers in Israel andItaly find they can overwhelm a recipient's remaining immune cells and thwart rejection. The dose of stem cells, collected from blood instead of bone marrow, is up to 10 times greater than a marrow transplant would normally provide.
Even when the donated stem cells are mismatched for three of the six markers, the survival rate of recipients approaches that of patients receiving blood from well-matched, unrelated donors.
In both the marrow and new stem-cell transplant procedures, patients typically receive radiation treatment, chemotherapy, and drugs to suppress immune rejection and ward off disease. Even so, the patients can encounter a cancer recurrence, infection, transplant rejection, or graft-versus-host disease, in which the donor's immune cells attack the patient.
The researchers extracted stem cells from the blood of donors who had been primed with hormones to produce these cells prodigiously. To lessen the risk of graft-versus-host disease, the technique also removes the donor's immune T cells.
Of 43 terminally ill leukemia patients treated with this procedure, 12 survived and were healthy 18 months after the stem-cell transplant, says study coauthor Yair Reisner of the Weizmann Institute in Rehovot, Israel. The other patients died or suffered a relapse of leukemia.
"For patients who don't have matched donors or don't have time to wait, this is a huge step forward," says LeeAnn T. Jensen of the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute in Bethesda, Md.
At the core of the mismatch problem are human leukocyte antigens, cell-surface proteins that help direct immune system functions. Genes encoding these proteins are inherited as a unit, one from each parent. Identifying the DNA sequence at three specific locations on each unit provides the six genetic markers used in seeking a match.
Less than a third of patients have a family member who matches five or six markers, but everyone's parents and most siblings match at least three. "It would be very unusual that you wouldn't have a related donor for every patient," Reisner says.
61. To beat leukemia, it helps to be lucky because__________.
A) the patient can not choose an appropriate bone marrow from a tissue bank.
B) the best available transplant contains only three or four correct genetic markers.
C) the patient has a limited range of genetic markers
D) bone marrow transplants are randomized
62. According to the researchers in Israel and Italy, the donated cells can overcome rejection _________.
A) by conquering the recipient’s remaining immune cells.
B) by matching exactly the recipients immune cells.
C) by expanding the options for transplants
D) by building up their dosage.
63. In which of the following are the donated stem cells important to the recipient?
A) Radiation treatment
B) Quantity of cells
C)Related sources
D) Amount
Jensen implies, patients having no matched donors or no time to wait can bear hope of life ________
A) with stem-cell transplant
B) with radiation treatment and chemotherapy
C) by using drugs to suppress immune rejection.
D)by lessening the risk of graft-versus-host disease
message of the passage is clear that stem cell transplants can make it easy for a leukemia patient _______.
A) to survive the disease
B) to find a related donor
C) to match five or six markers.
D)To ward off the procedures to suppress immune rejection.
Part IV Translation ( 20 points )
Directions: Translate the underlined parts in each sentence into Chinese
1. Georgetown University Hospital offers a variety of medical facilities through its many clinical departments. There are, for example, departments of general medicine, pediatrics, surgery, ophthalmology, and obstetrics and gynecology.
2. Although essential hypertension is the etiologic category in the vast majority of cases, it is possible that as many as 5% of hypertensive individuals suffer from the renal arterial diseases.
3. Independently, several groups developed methods to close congenital cardiac defects with devices delivered by catheters.
4. Glomerular filtration rate, urine flow rate and urinary concentrating ability all correlated inversely with the degree ofmedullary hyperemia.
5. Davidson and colleagues strongly suggest that assays of hemoglobin glycosylation should be the diagnostic criterion standard for diabetes.
6. The reversible airway obstruction is caused by smooth muscle contraction and mucosal edema.
7. Individuals infected with large burdens or particularly virulent strains of H pylori may be capable of developing ulcers regardless of their psychological characteristics.
8. Cancer risk is increased with most types of immune deficiency, including congenital disorders and iatrogenic treatments to prevent allograft rejection.
9. Other complications are associated with ischaemia of the tracheal mucosa leading to tracheo-oesophageal fistula, erosion of the innominate artery or, much later tracheal stenosis.
10. A meta-analysis of 22 placebo-controlled hypnotic trials concluded that benzodiazepines and zolpidem produced improvements in sleep latency, total sleep time and sleep quality.
Answer Sheet
Part IV Translation ( 20 points )
1. _____________________, _______________________
2. _____________________,________________________
3. _____________________
4. _____________________,_________________________
5. _____________________
6. _____________________,_________________________
7. _____________________
8. _____________________,_________________________
9. _____________________,_________________________
10. _____________________
Key ( A )
Part I Listening Comprehension ( 10% )
1----5 CDCCB 6-----10 CADAD
11----15 ACABD 16----20 DCACB
Part II Vocabulary ( 20% )
21----25 BCACC 26----30 CDDCC
31----35 ACACA 36----40 ADBCC
Part III Reading Comprehension ( 50% )
41----45 BCACD 46----50 BDCCB
51----55 BDACD
56----60 BDCDD 61----65 BADAB
Part IV Translation ( 20% )
1. 内科，妇产科
2. 原发性高血压，肾动脉疾病
3. 先天性心脏缺损
4. 肾小球滤过率，髓质充血
5. 糖化血红蛋白测定
6. 可逆性气道阻塞，黏膜水肿
7. 致病力强的幽门螺杆菌菌株
8. 免疫缺陷，同种异体移植排斥
9. 气管食管篓，气管狭窄
10. 安慰剂对照安眠药物试验
